Galatians 3 FSI - HEAR, O EARTH

> [!title|noicon] **Galatians 3 Notes** > [[Galatians 2 FSI|<Prev]]   [[Galatians 4 FSI|Next>]] > [[Galatians 3|Verse list view]] > **Galatians 3 Overview:** *Purpose of the Law* > > Using a series of rhetorical questions, Paul tells the Galatians to remember that they first became saved and received the Holy Spirit not by works but by hearing the gospel of grace. If the law they are now trying to observe could bring salvation, then God would not have given the promise of grace at all. Observing the law, therefore, cannot possibly save anyone. > > The reason God gave His promise of grace to Abraham was because Abraham believed God and his faith was accounted to him for righteousness. The promise has always meant to be salvation by grace to people of all nations who believe in Christ. That's because Christ is the promised seed of Abraham. > > Why, then, was the law given? To let people know for sure that they, being transgressors of the law, are sinners and are therefore in need of a Savior. Now that Christ, the promised Savior, has come, all those who believe as Abraham did are freed from the demand of the law. Having been cleansed by Christ, they are the heirs according to the promise. ^gal3-overview > [Galatians 3:1](Galatians%203.md#^1) note > > The word "evidently" in this verse is from a Greek word which means "before written". So, the phrase "hath been evidently set forth" means "has been set forth by that which was previously written". > > You see, the churches in Galatia were started by Paul on his first missionary journey. And to strengthen them, he made subsequent visits there. While he was with the Galatians, he had no doubt carefully explained to them that salvation comes only by the grace of God, and that works have no part in it at all. > > An ardent student of the Scripture, he must have shown them that God's salvation-by-grace program had in fact been written in the Old Testament, the Bible of that day. That's why he reminds the Galatians in this verse that, based on that which had been written in Scripture, they were then able to visualize the crucifixion of Christ with their own eyes. > > Somehow, the Galatians have since departed from the truth and have fallen instead for the lie that all believers had to be circumcised. Reacting with amazement, Paul exclaimed, "O foolish Galatians! Who has bewitched you into disobeying the truth!" The same question can be asked today. Why are there so many doctrines that teach that to be saved, a person must be baptized in water? Or that he must of his own free will accept the Lord Jesus? Or that he must perform this ritual or that? > > **Misguided Concern** > > There may be two major reasons for this. The first is man's concern for the salvation of others. Well-meaning Christians are afraid that if they tell people the truth, that God had predestinated all those whom He would save, many unbelievers would be offended. Telling people that they have to make a free will decision, they believe, is more palatable. > > Well-meaning though that attitude may be, the fact nevertheless is that we cannot design our own salvation program and we mustn't think that we are wiser than God. More importantly, the fact that God has chosen certain ones to be saved and has done the whole work of grace does not mean that anyone who wants to come to God cannot do so. The Bible says that whosoever believes on the Lord Jesus Christ shall not perish, but have everlasting life. God promised in [Jeremiah 29:13](Jeremiah%2029.md#^13) that "Ye shall seek me, and find me, when ye shall search for me with all your heart." The Gospel gives the same salvation offer to everyone. > > The sad fact is that, conversely, not one of us of ourselves actually will seek God with all our heart. God flatly declares in [Romans 3:10](Romans%203.md#^10) - [11](Romans%203.md#^11) "There is none righteous, no, not one; there is none that understands, there is none that seeks after God." We are blinded by sin. We are dead spiritually. We do not have the spiritual ears to hear God's invitation and so we cannot respond to it. > > **God's Grace** > > Thankfully, God has planned to save a people for Himself, for His glory. By His mercy and grace, He had decided that He would save a body of believers. So, He inclines the hearts of those whom He has chosen to be saved and gives them a spiritual ear to hear. Thus, the only reason why any one of us believes in Christ is that God has sovereignly drawn us to Him. > > But what's wrong with bending the truth a little bit just to make sure that none of God's elect is repelled by the idea of predestination? It's wrong because it turns God's truth into a lie. God says, "to obey is better than sacrifice" ([I Sam 15:22](1%20Samuel%2015.md#^22)). All our evangelistic efforts are meaningless to God if we are not obedient to His commands to begin with. Besides, Jesus promises in [John 6:37](John%206.md#^37), "All that the Father gives me shall come to me; and he that comes to me I will in no wise cast out." Our job, therefore, is to faithfully proclaim the whole counsel of God. We don't have to, nor should we ever, second-guess God. > > **Human Pride** > > We humans are all afflicted by the sin of pride. We want at least some of our works to be recognized. We want to get some credit. That salvation can only come by the grace of God is an idea most people cannot accept. This is one big reason why unsaved people, who do not become saved, do not become saved. > > When somebody makes a wrong remark about us, our pride is offended. When someone disagrees with what we say, our feelings are hurt. But we have to beat down this sin and give it no quarter. We need to pray again and again that God would give us the grace to walk humbly. Remember [Galatians 2:20](Galatians%202.md#^20)? There, we read that we have been crucified with Christ. There is nothing left of us. Anything that we are, we give all the credit to Christ. Therefore, every doctrine that we hold has to be examined with that in view. > > If you have been brought up on a free-will gospel and you have found it hard to acknowledge that Christ has done it all, then you have to ask yourself: Is my pride getting in the way? If I truly walk humbly before God, is it so difficult to accept this truth? ^gal3-1 > [Galatians 3:2](Galatians%203.md#^2) note > > This is a rhetorical question. The answer, of course, is the latter – “by the hearing of faith.” No one receives the Holy Spirit as payment for doing the works of the law. So, Paul is effectively reminding the Galatians that they were saved “by the hearing of faith". A commentary of that last phrase appears in [Romans 10:9](Romans%2010.md#^9), which reads: "If thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God has raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved." This verse is the faithful promise of God. > > To "confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus" means not only to admit that we are sinners and that Christ is our Savior, but to declare that we are of the same mind with Christ. To confess the Lord Jesus thus means that we have surrendered our will to Him and that we have hung our entire life on Him. > > **Dead in Sin** > > But, as we saw earlier, we are spiritually dead and would never on our own seek God. How then can we make that confession? We find the answer in [Ezekiel 36:25](Ezekiel%2036.md#^25) - [26](Ezekiel%2036.md#^26): > > *Then will I sprinkle clean water upon you, and ye shall be clean: from all your filthiness, and from all your idols, will I cleanse you. A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.* > > You see, God initiates the action. He cleanses a rebellious sinner of his sins and gives him a new spirit, the Holy Spirit, and a new heart. And the evidence that God has done this is that this sinner begins to confess the Lord Jesus Christ and believe in his heart that God has raised Him from the dead. How does God, after having given us a new heart, give us the faith to trust Him? [Romans 10:17](Romans%2010.md#^17) reads, "So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." This is the hearing that verse 2 of Galatians 3 is talking about. > > **Spiritual Ears** > > Under God's salvation program, only by hearing the Word of God, by hearing the Gospel, can one obtain saving faith. And this hearing requires the spiritual ears, which, as we discussed earlier, only God can give us. In this connection, we read in [verse 18 of Romans 10](Romans%2010.md#^18), "But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world." In other words, the Israelites did hear the Gospel with physical ears. But their unbelief persisted because "God has given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear" ([Ro 11:8](Romans%2011.md#^8)). > > So, our trusting in God is altogether a product of God's action. God gives us the spiritual ears to hear, the faith to respond, and the Holy Spirit to indwell us. ^gal3-2 > [Galatians 3:3](Galatians%203.md#^3) note > > Paul asks, in effect: "Having received salvation by the grace of God, are you so foolish as to try to improve upon it by doing works of the flesh?" And the answer to this rhetorical question, of course, should be "No!". Yet, there are churches today which teach that when a person is saved, all his past sins are covered by the blood of Christ; but to remain saved, he must do good works. Such teaching, as we see here, is foolishness. It again stems from the sin of pride; man wants to take some credit somehow for his salvation. > > The truth is, if a person is truly saved, then all his sins, past present and future, are covered by the blood of Christ. We read in Isaiah 53:6, "All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all." The iniquity of us all means all of our sins. [Hebrews 12:2](Hebrews%2012.md#^2) therefore declares, "Jesus (is) the author and finisher of our faith". God begins our salvation and He will complete it. ^gal3-3 > [Galatians 3:4](Galatians%203.md#^4) note > > Why does Paul bring up the subject of suffering at this point? Is suffering pertinent to the subject of salvation by grace? Yes, indeed. We read in [I Thessalonians 2:14](1%20Thessalonians%202.md#^14), [15](1%20Thessalonians%202.md#^15), [15](1%20Thessalonians%202.md#^16): > > *For ye, brethren, became followers of the churches of God which in Judaea are in Christ Jesus: for ye also have suffered like things of your own countrymen, even as they have of the Jews: Who both killed the Lord Jesus, and their own prophets, and have persecuted us; and they please not God, and are contrary to all men: Forbidding us to speak to the Gentiles that they might be saved, to fill up their sins always: for the wrath is come upon them to the uttermost.* > > This striking passage reveals that the Thessalonians, like the apostle Paul, suffered for the sake of Christ. They suffered at the hands of their countrymen. This is what we are to expect when we follow the Gospel of the Bible. When we become saved by responding to it, we become an enemy of Satan, and he, who rules the hearts of the unsaved, will use the latter to persecute us. > > That's why Jesus warned in [John 16:33](John%2016.md#^33), "In the world you shall have tribulation." The Good News is, He also says in the same verse, "but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world." If we endure, we will have victory in the end. > > **Persecution** > > Throughout the centuries, thousands upon thousands of Christians have been martyred because of their faith. Even today, believers in many countries are being severely persecuted. Here in the US, the Lord has been merciful in that we hardly suffer any physical suffering for following Christ. There may likely come a day when that will no longer be the case. > > Nevertheless, those who faithfully teach and obey the commands of God are still being persecuted. Typically, they are ridiculed by people within Christendom – those who take the Word of God lightly, interpret it liberally, and obey it just partly. As the end of time approaches, in fact, this persecution will intensify because the church itself has become mostly apostate. True believers find themselves vastly outnumbered by unsaved churchgoers. > > How might the Galatians have indeed suffered in vain, as Paul suggests in this verse? Answer: if they fall into a grace-plus-works gospel and do not have salvation. It's not that any believer can ever lose their salvation. But if the Galatians do go after another gospel, it would indicate that they were never truly saved to begin with, their suffering notwithstanding. ^gal3-4 > [Galatians 3:5](Galatians%203.md#^5) note > > To drive home the point that believers are saved entirely by the grace of God, Paul rephrases the question he asked in verse 3. In this question, however, he also declares it is God Who ministers, or gives, the Holy Spirit to believers. > > Now, does God give us the Holy Spirit because we have done good works? Is it because we have been baptized in water? Is it because we have reached out to the Lord Jesus Christ on our own? Of course not. Or is it by the hearing of faith? Indeed it is! God gives us the spiritual ears to hear the Gospel, and He gives us the faith to respond to it and the Holy Spirit to guarantee our salvation. > > **Misquoted Quote** > > Incidentally, a verse that many quote to prove that we have to take an independent action to receive the grace of God is [Revelation 3:20](Revelation%203.md#^20). It reads: > > *Behold, I stand at the door, and knock; if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me.* > > At first glance, it does seem to suggest that if we do not open the door, we won't get saved. “God is a gentleman,” free-will advocates often say. He won't force His way into our heart; He just waits for us to open the door. Such a conclusion, however, directly contradicts what the Bible is teaching us here in Galatians. > > Actually, the key phrase of that verse is "If any many hear my voice". As we have already seen, no man of himself will hear God's voice; that is, no man will hear the Gospel call in such a way as to respond positively. Our hearing must be activated by Christ Himself. So, when Christ knocks on the door of the heart of the man that He intends to save, He also gives him spiritual ears to hear the knock and to respond to the call. Then, He will come in and sup with him. To sup with God means to participate in the marriage feast of the Lamb of God. > > **Miracles** > > Paul says here that God not only ministers the Spirit to us, He also "works miracles" among us. Can we infer from that statement that we should expect miracles to take place in our midst? Indeed, many congregations today put great emphasis on signs and wonders. > > **Signs** > > Actually, there are three Greek words in the New Testament that are commonly translated miracles or that which have to do with miracles. The first is *semeion*. It is usually translated "sign", as in the phrase "signs and wonders", or "miracles". It applies to those miracles when God sets aside the natural laws that govern the universe, such as His walking on water and His multiplying the loaves to feed thousands of people. We find that word, for example, in [John 2:11](John%202.md#^11) in connection with Jesus' changing water into wine. That verse reads, "This beginning of miracles (semeion) did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him." > > **Wonders** > > The second Greek word that relates to miracles is *teras*. In the Bible, it is always translated "wonder". Jesus did signs and wonders, He did *semeion* and *teras*. For a short period after Christ's Ascension, the apostles did signs and wonders as well. These were physical miracles, such as the instant healing of the sick and the resuscitation of the dead. But by themselves, even the signs and wonders performed by Jesus Himself did not produce faith. Nor were they meant to. As a matter of fact, Jesus declares, "An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign (semeion)" ([Mt 12:39](Matthew%2012.md#^39)). We are to "walk by faith, not by sight" ([2 Cor 5:7](2%20Corinthians%205.md#^7)). > > In the historical context, however, Jesus and the apostles performed them as a means to authenticate their credentials. After the early churches had been established, such verification was no longer needed. Thus, there is no mention in the Bible of any such miracles by God after Acts 19. But the Bible does warn that toward the end of time, "there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall show great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect" ([Mt 24:24](Matthew%2024.md#^24)). Indeed, all of the Biblical statements that relate to end-time miracles attribute them to Satanic activity. > > **Power** > > There is yet another Greek word that is translated "miracles" or "mighty works" occasionally, although it is far more frequently translated "power". It is the word *dunamis*. In [Matthew 11:20](Matthew%2011.md#^20), [21](Matthew%2011.md#^21), [22](Matthew%2011.md#^22), for example, we read: > > *Then began he to upbraid the cities wherein most of his might words were done, because they repented not: Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works, which were done in you, had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for Tyre and Sidon at the day of judgment, than for you.* > > Actually, the word dunamis is very closely related to salvation. In [Acts 1:8](Acts%201.md#^8), for example, Jesus says, "But ye shall receive power (dunamis), after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you; and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth." Likewise, we read in [Romans 1:16](Romans%201.md#^16): > > *For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power (dunamis) of God unto salvation to every one that believes; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.* > > And dunamis is the word appearing here in Galatians 3:5. Thus, Paul is saying in this verse, "He therefore...that works power among you..." He is talking about the work of salvation that God does among our lives. Does He do it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? And the implied answer is the latter. ^gal3-5 > [Galatians 3:6](Galatians%203.md#^6) note > > Abraham was a sterling example of a saved person. He lived several hundred years before any part of the Bible had been written. When God told him to leave his family and go to a strange land, he obeyed. Later, when he was told to sacrifice his son Isaac and offer him as a burnt offering, he was obedient. > > Regarding that second testing, [Hebrews 11:17](Hebrews%2011.md#^17), [18](Hebrews%2011.md#^18), [19](Hebrews%2011.md#^19) explains: > > *By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son, of whom it was said, that in Isaac shall thy seed be called: accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead.* > > He was convinced that even if he had killed Isaac, God would raise the boy up because God had promised that many nations would eventually be blessed by his seed through the line of Isaac. > > But is this verse saying that because Abraham had such a profound trust in God, God regarded him as righteous? Is the Bible contradicting itself? To answer that, let's go to [Romans 4:3](Romans%204.md#^3), which reads, "For what says the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness." As you can see, this verse addresses the same point as Galatians 3:6. > > **No Obligation** > > We then read in [verse 4 of Romans 4](Romans%204.md#^4), "Now to him that works is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt." > > This verse teaches that had Abraham done some work to become saved, then his salvation would have been a reward, not the grace of God; God would have been indebted to Abraham to provide salvation. > > [Verse 5 of Romans 4](Romans%204.md#^5) continues, "But to him that works not, but believes on him that justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness." Standing alone, this verse again seems to contradict itself since, as we saw earlier, [1 John 3:23](1%20John%203.md#^23) commands humanity to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. Obeying the law to become saved would, of course, be a work that we do. > > Actually, this verse is reinforcing what [Romans 3:20](Romans%203.md#^20) has earlier declared. To wit: > > *Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight; for by the law is the knowledge of sin.* > > **God's Righteousness** > > Now, read the next three verses in Romans 3 carefully: > > *But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets. Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe; for there is no difference; For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God.* > > You see, it is *the righteousness of God* that saves us and *that* righteousness is by, or because of, *the faith of the Lord Jesus Christ*. This is the same truth we saw earlier in [Galatians 2:20](Galatians%202.md#^20). And it explains why [Romans 1:17](Romans%201.md#^17) says, "For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith; as it is written, The just shall live by faith." The *righteousness of God* is revealed *out of the faith of the Lord Jesus Christ unto our faith*. > > So, whenever we read about Abraham believing God, remember his faith was a result of the faithfulness of God in providing this salvation for Abraham. Abraham's faith was the evidence that he had become a child of God. ^gal3-6 > [Galatians 3:7](Galatians%203.md#^7) note > > Remember, we become believers because Christ faithfully endured the wrath of God on our behalf and has also given us the faith to trust Him. Now, God declares that we which are of the faith of Christ are the children of Abraham. We are the inheritors of what God promised to give to Abraham and his seed. > > Abraham, of course, is the progenitor of national Israel. The Jewish people have, therefore, always assumed that they are the seed of promise. Not so, God declares here. Only those who are identified with the Lord Jesus Christ are the children of Abraham. Jesus Himself talked about this during one of His encounters with the Pharisees. He said in [John 8:37](John%208.md#^37) - [38](John%208.md#^38): > > *I know that ye are Abraham's seed; but ye seek to kill me, because my word has no place in you. I speak that which I have seen with my Father: and ye do that which ye have seen with your father.* > > We then read in [verse 39](John%208.md#^39), "They answered and said unto him, Abraham is our father. Jesus saith unto them, If ye were Abraham's children, ye would do the works of Abraham." Thus, Jesus was telling the Jewish religious leaders that even though they were blood descendants of Abraham, they were not in God's eyes Abraham's children. If they were, they would have followed the patriarch's footsteps in trusting God, instead of trying to kill Him. The Lord actually told the Pharisees that they were the children of the devil, saying in [verse 44](John%208.md#^44): > > *Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaks a lie, he speaks of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.* ^gal3-7 > [Galatians 3:8](Galatians%203.md#^8) note > > Here, the Bible is giving us a tremendous statement. It is saying that it has always been God's plan to save the heathen, the non-Jewish people, through faith in Jesus Christ. Foreseeing that, or anticipating that, the Word of God announced in advance the Good News to Abraham by telling him, "In thee shall all nations be blessed." > > We find in the Old Testament that God first called Abram in Genesis 12 to leave his country and go to a land that He would show him. God promised in [verse 3](Genesis%2012.md#^3), "in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed." God repeated that promise to Abraham many times afterwards. Moreover, after Abraham's death, He reassured Isaac of that promise, saying in [Genesis 26:3](Genesis%2026.md#^3) - [4](Genesis%2026.md#^4): > > *Sojourn in this land, and I will be with thee, and will bless thee; for unto thee, and unto thy seed, I will give all these countries, and I will perform the oath which I swore unto Abraham thy father; and I will make thy seed to multiply like the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these countries; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed.* > > Again, later on in [Genesis 28:13](Genesis%2028.md#^13) - [14](Genesis%2028.md#^14), God said to Jacob, Isaac's son: > > *I am the Lord God of Abraham thy father, and the God of Isaac: the land whereon thou liest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed; And thy seed shall be as the dust of the earth, and thou shalt spread abroad to the west, and to the east, and to the north, and to the south: and in thee and in thy seed shall all the families of the earth be blessed.* > > **Promised Land** > > Notice that with both Isaac and Jacob, God linked the giving of the land to His promise that in them shall all nations be blessed. Actually, that was also a reiteration of what God had previously promised to Abraham. Back in [Genesis 13:14](Genesis%2013.md#^14) - [15](Genesis%2013.md#^15), when Abram and Lot separated, the Lord said to Abram, > > *Lift up now thine eyes, and look from the place where thou art northward, and southward, and eastward, and westward: For all the land which thou seest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed for ever.* > > Later, in Genesis 17, when God changed Abram's name to Abraham (which means "father of a multitude"), He said in [verse 5](Genesis%2017.md#^5), "for a father of many nations have I made thee", and then in [verse 8](Genesis%2017.md#^8), "And I will give unto thee, and to thy seed after thee, the land wherein thou art a stranger, all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and I will be their God." > > It's highly significant that the promised land was to be given to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and their seed for an everlasting possession. That's because they never received the promised land in their lifetime. Since God is faithful in fulfilling all of His promises, He will have to raise them up at some point to give them the land forevermore. Just as Abraham, in obeying God by offering up Isaac, believed that God would raise Isaac up from the dead in order to fulfill His promises, so indeed God will raise up Abraham, Isaac, Jacob and their seed in order to fulfill His eternal promises to them for them to inherit the land. > > **The Last Day** > > When might that be? Four times in John 6, Christ says that He will raise up those who have become saved on the last day. And in [John 11:24](John%2011.md#^24), Martha, speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, said of her brother Lazarus, "I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day." The last day, of course, is the final day of this earth's existence. As [2 Peter 3:10](2%20Peter%203.md#^10) puts it, "the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up." [Verse 13](2%20Peter%203.md#^13) then assures us, "Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwells righteousness." > > The land that God promised to give Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and their seed thus has to be the new creation. Only then will they have it for an everlasting possession. That's why in Genesis 13, God told Abraham to look as far as he could see in all four directions. You see, when God promised to give Abraham the land of Canaan, He had in mind the new and everlasting heaven and earth. > > Inheriting the New Holy City, of course, is the ultimate outcome of the salvation of all believers. This is confirmed by Hebrews 11, the chapter in which God speaks of a number of Old Testament men of faith. Its last two verses, [verses 39](Hebrews%2011.md#^39) - [40](Hebrews%2011.md#^40) read: > > *And these all, having obtained a good report through faith, received not the promise: God having provided some better thing for us, that they without us should not be made perfect.* > > **Same Gospel** > > The Bible is thus saying that there is no difference between Old Testament and New Testament believers. They are all saved by the same Gospel of grace; they all have "obtained a good report through faith", and their salvation will all be consummated on the last day, when they will all receive the promise. Hence, when we read in Genesis 6, for example, that Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord, we know that he was saved by the grace of God. > > There are many who teach that salvation by grace is a dispensation only for the New Testament period; it was offered to Gentiles as an interlude after the Jews had rejected Christ. Before the cross, they say, God had a different salvation formula for ancient Israel; and after the church age ends, God will offer Israel yet another dispensation, making it into a great kingdom of God again. Well, this verse in Galatians 3, along with what we have just gone through, is effectively saying to them, "No way." > > **Gates of Hell** > > Before we leave this subject, let me also comment on what God said in Genesis 22 after Abraham had obediently prepared to offer Isaac as a burnt offering. He said in [verses 16](Genesis%2022.md#^16), [17](Genesis%2022.md#^17), [18](Genesis%2022.md#^18): > > *For because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son: That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies; And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.* > > What does "thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies" have to do with salvation? Well, remember the time when Peter confessed, "Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God"? Jesus said in response, "Upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it" ([Mt 16:18](Matthew%2016.md#^18)). Christ, you see, possesses the gate of His enemies. By His victory at the cross, He controls the gates of hell. Satan can no longer keep people from being liberated out of his dominion of darkness. So, in Genesis 22, the Gospel of Christ was again "preached before unto Abraham". > > Actually, Abraham was by no means the only one who was preached the Gospel of grace in the Old Testament. We read in [Hebrews 4:2](Hebrews%204.md#^2), "For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it." In that context, the "them" referred to the millions of Israelites that perished in the wilderness. They were preached the Gospel, but they did not profit from it, that is, they did not benefit from it because of their unbelief. > > **A Different Promise** > > But didn't God also promise to give a specific plot of land on earth to the Israelites? And isn't God still obligated to fulfill that promise as some theologians claim? Yes and no. Yes, in Genesis, God did give Abraham another promise pertaining to some earthly land. And no, that promise has already been completely fulfilled. We find this promise first given in Genesis 15, beginning with verse 18: > > *In the same day the Lord made a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates: The Kenites, and the Kenizzites, and the Kadmonites, and the Hittites, and the Perizzites, and the Rephaims, and the Amorites, and the Canaanites, and the Girgashites, and the Jebusites.* > > Unlike the eternal promise given to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the land spoken of here is given not to Abraham himself, but only to his offspring. Nor is there any mention of everlasting possession. In fact, in Deuteronomy 28, just before the people of Israel were about to possess the promised land, Moses warned them against being disobedient to God. Otherwise, he said in [verse 63](Deuteronomy%2028.md#^63): > > *And it shall come to pass, that as the Lord rejoiced over you to do you good, and to multiply you; so the Lord will rejoice over you to destroy you, and to bring you to nought; and ye shall be plucked from off the land whither thou goest to possess it.* > > **Delivered in Full** > > Has that earthly promise been completely fulfilled? Those theologians who are yet looking for a golden age for national Israel do not think so. The twelve tribes never received all the land described in that promise, they say. But let's see what God Himself has to say about it. We read in [Joshua 21:43](Joshua%2021.md#^43), [44](Joshua%2021.md#^44), [45](Joshua%2021.md#^45): > > *And the Lord gave unto Israel all the land which he swore to give unto their fathers; and they possessed it, and dwelt therein. And the Lord gave them rest round about, according to all that he swore unto their fathers: and there stood not a man of all their enemies before them; the Lord delivered all their enemies into their hand. There failed not ought of any good thing which the Lord had spoken unto the house of Israel; all came to pass.* > > Also, [Nehemiah 9:7](Nehemiah%209.md#^7) - [8](Nehemiah%209.md#^8) reads: > > *Thou art the Lord the God, who didst choose Abram...and foundest his heart faithful before thee, and madest a covenant with him to give the land of the Canaanites, the Hittites...to his seed, and hast performed thy words; for thou art righteous.* > > In these two statements, God declares flatly that He did give unto the Israelites all the land which He swore to give unto their fathers, and that He has indeed performed, or kept, His words because He is righteous. The reason Israel never had full possession of the land was that they failed to follow God's commands fully. If anyone says today, therefore, that God still owes national Israel certain land, they are contradicting what the Bible declares. God already gave that nation all that He had promised to give. ^gal3-8 > [Galatians 3:9](Galatians%203.md#^9) note > > This statement summarizes the discussions of the last three verses: Since Abraham was considered righteous because he was given the faith to believe God and since all believers are in God's eyes the children of Abraham whether or not they are his blood descendants, therefore all those who are saved out of the faith of Christ are blessed with eternal life along with believing Abraham. > > That both the Old and the New Testaments offer the same Gospel is such an important doctrine in the Christian faith that we should also look a bit at Romans 4 because it is a commentary on Genesis 17. We know Romans 4 is about salvation by grace because it says in [verses 4](Romans%204.md#^4) and [5](Romans%204.md#^5): > > *Now unto him that works is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that works not, but believes on him that justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.* > > **Sign of Circumcision** > > With that in mind, let's go back again to Genesis 17. [Verse 11](Genesis%2017.md#^11) reads, "And ye shall circumcise the flesh of your foreskin; and it shall be a token of the covenant betwixt me and you." What covenant was that sign of circumcision a token of? We find the answer in [Romans 4:11](Romans%204.md#^11): > > *And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also.* > > It says there that Abraham had "the righteousness of the faith" – that is, he was saved – when he was yet uncircumcised. And he was given that sign as a token that "he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised." You see, God promised Abraham even back then that he would be the father of all believers, including those who are not of Jewish descent. > > **No Exception** > > But that's not all. [Romans 4:12](Romans%204.md#^12) continues: > > *And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.* > > Here, God makes it clear God makes it clear that national Israel is no exception. Abraham is the father of circumcision, the Israelites, to them who not only are circumcised, but who also walk in the footsteps of Abraham in having faith before he was circumcised. This statement belies the claim that God promised to save all of national Israel someday. Rather, it is His plan to save a people for Himself out of all nations who walk after the faith of Abraham. We can thus understand why God said in [Genesis 17:4](Genesis%2017.md#^4) and [5](Genesis%2017.md#^5): > > *As for me, behold, my covenant is with thee, and thou shalt be a father of many nations. Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee.* > > The only way for Abraham to be the progenitor of many nations is for him to be the spiritual ancestor of the people of many nations. > > **Everlasting Covenant** > > In [Genesis 17:7](Genesis%2017.md#^7), God further told Abraham, "And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed after thee." The word "everlasting" immediately tells us that "thy seed" there refers to those who are in Christ, because they are the only ones who will inherit the new heaven and the new earth everlastingly. Everything on this earth will be destroyed by fire on the last day. The Romans 4 parallel to Genesis 17:7 is [verse 16](Romans%204.md#^16), which reads: > > *Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end that the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all.* > > Here, the word "promise" is a synonym for “covenant”. It is through the promise of the covenant that, by God’s grace alone, those who are of the faith of Abraham, that is, those who have been given faith in Christ, obtain the eternal inheritance. > > **Eternal Land** > > Finally, we read in [Genesis 17:8](Genesis%2017.md#^8), "And I will give unto thee, and to thy seed after thee, the land wherein thou art a stranger, all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and I will be their God." Commenting on that, [Romans 4:13](Romans%204.md#^13) says, "For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith." > > Notice that here, God uses "the world" in place of "the land of Canaan", underscoring thereby that the latter was not referring to the small plot of land in Palestine. Rather, the land of Canaan (the “promised land”) figuratively represents the new heaven and the new earth. In the Old Testament, the entry into Canaan from the wilderness was a picture of salvation. > > Having seen such a weighty commentary of Genesis 17 in Romans 4, we can safely conclude that from Genesis to Revelation, the Bible offers only one Gospel – salvation by grace through faith, which is the gift of God. Any suggestion that God has different dispensations for different peoples in different periods of history is altogether at odds with what God teaches. ^gal3-9 > [Galatians 3:10](Galatians%203.md#^10) note > > Now Paul, moved by God the Holy Spirit, begins to look at this matter of salvation by grace from a few different vantage points. In every case, he uses Scripture from the Old Testament, the Bible of that day, to support his argument. In this verse, he says that if anyone tries to gain salvation by doing the works of the law, he is, in fact, under a curse. The scriptural basis for this serious warning is [Deuteronomy 27:26](Deuteronomy%2027.md#^26). There, God says, "Cursed be he that confirms not all the words of this law to do them." > > The term "all the words" means that even if a person disobeys just one tiny point of God's command, he is cursed. This warning is reiterated in the New Testament. [James 2:10](James%202.md#^10) states: "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all." > > The problem is, every human is conceived and born into this world with a sinful nature. The Bible says, "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me" ([Ps 51:5](Psalm%2051.md#^5)); and "The wicked are estranged from the womb: they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies" ([58:3](Psalm%2058.md#^3)). So, even before we saw the light of day, we were already in rebellion against God; we were cursed before we were born. ^gal3-10 > [Galatians 3:11](Galatians%203.md#^11) note > > Next, Paul argues that clearly no one can be justified by the law, that is, no one can become righteous in the sight of God, because the law itself states that a person is justified by faith. Here, the apostle Paul goes back to the Book of Habakkuk. > > Habakkuk was a prophet ministering during the period when the southern kingdom of Judah had turned terribly apostate. Upset by the sins he saw all around him, he pleaded to God: "O Lord, how long shall I cry, and thou wilt not hear! Even cry out unto thee of violence, and thou wilt not save" ([Hab 1:2](Habakkuk%201.md#^2)). He couldn't understand why God could tolerate such wrong. In reply, God told him that He was raising up the Chaldeans (another name for the Babylonians) to judge Judah. That answer further confused Habakkuk. So, he asked the Lord, in effect, "But how can you, a righteous God, let your people, disobedient though they are, be destroyed by an even more wicked nation?" > > God then told Habakkuk to be patient, assuring him that the proud conquerors would eventually be punished and that at the proper time, He would save His people. With that in mind, we can better understand [verses 2](Habakkuk%202.md#^2), [3](Habakkuk%202.md#^3), [4](Habakkuk%202.md#^4) of Habakkuk 2: > > *And the LORD answered me, and said, Write the vision, and make it plain upon tables, that he may run that reads it. For the vision is yet for an appointed time, but at the end it shall speak, and not lie: though it tarry, wait for it; because it will surely come, it will not tarry. Behold, his soul which is lifted up is not upright in him: but the just shall live by his faith.* > > That last phrase is what Paul quotes in Galatians 3:11. It proves that God has always meant to save only those who live by His faith. ^gal3-11 > [Galatians 3:12](Galatians%203.md#^12) note > > Having stated in [verse 10](Galatians%203.md#^10) that anyone who tries to keep the law is under the curse of the law because he is bound to disobey it, and in [verse 11](Galatians%203.md#^11) that no one can be justified by the law because the law itself declares that one can only be justified by faith, Paul now points out that the law cannot possibly justify anyone because it is not of faith; it operates by works. This time, he quotes from [Leviticus 18:5](Leviticus%2018.md#^5): "Ye shall therefore keep my statutes, and my judgments; which if a man do, he shall live in them." In other words, if you keep my law, you will have to live by the law. > > In effect, then, the apostle is saying, "Since the law does not operate on faith and since the righteous shall live by faith, if you therefore choose to live by the law, you will have to remain under the curse of the law." ^gal3-12 > [Galatians 3:13](Galatians%203.md#^13) note > > Still based on Old Testament Scripture, Paul now shows why, in contrast to the hopeless path of following the law, we can have eternal life through faith. Christ, he says, has redeemed us from the curse of everlasting damnation. The verse Paul quotes here is from [Deuteronomy 21:22](Deuteronomy%2021.md#^22) - [23](Deuteronomy%2021.md#^23), which reads: > > *And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree; His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of God;) that thy land be not defiled, which the Lord thy God gives thee for an inheritance.* > > Remember, in the Old Testament, the normal way to execute a criminal was to have him stoned to death. So, when a person had to be put to death by being hanged from a tree, not only was he physically killed, he was also cursed by God – so much so that if he were left on the tree overnight, the whole land would be defiled. That is a picture of the second death, eternal damnation in hell. > > Well, Jesus died hanging on a tree. What crime did He commit? None at all. He was altogether sinless. He died to pay for our sins. Strictly speaking, if the Lord Jesus Christ had been stoned to death or had He been executed in some other manner, He could still have atoned for our sins. But the crucifixion was vivid evidence that Jesus suffered not only physical death, but the wrath of God on our behalf as well. He became a curse for us, being hanged on a tree. For every believer that He redeemed, He suffered the equivalent of an eternity in hell. ^gal3-13 > [Galatians 3:14](Galatians%203.md#^14) note > > What is the blessing that might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ? It is the faith that God had given Abraham, the faith that was accounted to him for righteousness. This verse is thus saying that because Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law by dying on the cross, salvation might come upon the Gentiles. Since Christ was "the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world" ([Rev 13:8](Revelation%2013.md#^8)), this again shows that it has always been God's intention to save people out of the Gentile nations as well as out of the nation of Israel. > > The second half of this verse, which essentially restates the truth of the first half, can be understood in two ways. First, it says that the Gentiles who have become saved as Abraham was saved will receive the promised Holy Spirit. The Lord Jesus made that promise the night before He went to the cross, saying, "I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; even the Spirit of truth" ([Jn 14:16](John%2014.md#^16) - [17](John%2014.md#^17)). > > The Promise was repeated by Peter in [Acts 2:38](Acts%202.md#^38) - [39](Acts%202.md#^39), who said in his sermon: > > *Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.* > > Indeed, since Pentecost, every believer has received the Holy Spirit at the moment of salvation, because [Romans 8:9](Romans%208.md#^9) declares, "…if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his." > > **Guarantee** > > "The promise of the Spirit through faith" also means that God has given every believer the Holy Spirit as a promise that his salvation will be consummated when he finally receives his glorious, spiritual body. This is what [Ephesians 1:13](Ephesians%201.md#^13) - [14](Ephesians%201.md#^14) means when it says, "after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory." The word "earnest" there means, in today's parlance, down payment. > > All believers have been sealed with the Holy Spirit, which is the down payment that guarantees that we will receive our inheritance, eternal life in the new heaven and new earth. ^gal3-14 > [Galatians 3:15](Galatians%203.md#^15) note > > Paul now begins yet another new line of argument for the Gospel of grace. Using a human analogy, he likens God's promise to Abraham to the will that people make in preparation for death. In our world, we call such a document the "Last Will and Testament". The word "testament", in fact, is from the same Greek word that is translated "covenant" in this verse. > > When a man writes his last will and testament, he puts within that will his wishes as to what is to be done with his estate at death. Among other things, he specifies who are to be the beneficiaries. He is under no obligation to include them in the will, and the bequests are not compensation for what the beneficiaries have done. The fact nevertheless is that if they are named in this will, then they are to receive the inheritance. > > Paul notes here that even in the case of a human will, once it has been confirmed or validated, the terms therein cannot be altered. After the death of the testator, its instructions must be carried out in every detail. The implication here is that the testament of God, who is infinitely more trustworthy than man, is all the more dependable and unchangeable. ^gal3-15 > [Galatians 3:16](Galatians%203.md#^16) note > > Following that line of argument, Paul says, God specified in His will that the beneficiaries were to be Abraham and his seed. The apostle calls particular attention to the word "seed", as distinguished from "seeds". And that singular seed that God had in view, he declares, is the Lord Jesus Christ, not all the blood descendants of Abraham. > > We can well understand why Abraham was named as one of the beneficiaries. He was the one to whom God first made the promises, and the promises, as we learned earlier in this chapter, are salvation from the curse of sin and the free gift of eternal life. > > But why was Christ also specified in that divine will as a beneficiary? He is God; He didn't need to be saved. Of Himself, of course, Christ is sinless. But He came to earth as our sin-bearer. On the cross, as a result, He underwent the wrath of God as if He was plunged into eternal death. For Him to successfully pay for our sins, He had to be taken out of hell. > > That Christ indeed had to be redeemed is reflected, among other places, in Psalm 69. This is a Messianic Psalm because the first half of [verse 9](Psalm%2069.md#^9) – which reads, "For the zeal of thine house has eaten me up" – is quoted in [John 2:17](John%202.md#^17) in connection with Christ clearing the merchants from the temple. And the [second half of Psalm 69:9](Psalm%2069.md#^9), "And the reproaches of them that reproached thee are fallen upon me", reveals that He became sin for us. Our reproaches had fallen on Christ. > > **Messianic Prayer** > > This is what the Lord said in [Psalm 69:13](Psalm%2069.md#^13), [14](Psalm%2069.md#^14), [15](Psalm%2069.md#^15): > > *But as for me, my prayer is unto thee, O Lord, in an acceptable time; O God, in the multitude of thy mercy hear me, in the truth of thy salvation. Deliver me out of the mire, and let me not sink; let me be delivered from them that hate me, and out of the deep waters. Let not the waterflood overflow me, neither let the deep swallow me up, and let not the pit shut her mouth upon me.* > > Can you now see why Jesus was named in God's will to receive the promise of salvation? As the testator of the will, He had to die to activate the bequest. But because He is also a beneficiary of that will, after He had paid in full for our sins, He received the promise of salvation also. Instead of remaining in hell, He was resurrected and inherited the new heaven and the new earth. > > Later on in [Galatians 3:29](Galatians%203.md#^29), we will see that because the Lord Jesus is the promised Seed of Abraham, all those who are in Christ are joint-heirs according to the promise. > > **Zacharias' Song** > > Actually, even before Christ became flesh, the New Testament reveals that He is the fulfillment of God's promise to Abraham. > > In Luke 1, we read about the birth of John the Baptist. When he was eight days old, he was circumcised and was given the name John. At that point, his father Zacharias, filled with the Holy Spirit, sang a song of praise. And this is what he sang in the first half of that song: > > *Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he has visited and redeemed his people, and has raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David; as he spoke by the mouth of his holy prophets, which have been since the world began: that we should be saved from our enemies, and from the hand of all that hate us; to perform the mercy promised to our fathers, and to remember his holy covenant; the oath which he swore to our father Abraham.* (vv. 68-73) > > Knowing that his son would introduce Christ to the people, he praised God for performing "the oath which he swore to our father Abraham". So Christ is the fulfillment of God’s performing the oath to Abraham. ^gal3-16 > [Galatians 3:17](Galatians%203.md#^17) note > > This verse ties back to [verse 15](Galatians%203.md#^15), which argues that the terms of even a human will cannot be altered once it has been validated. Paul now points out that the promise to Abraham of salvation by grace, which was subsequently confirmed by God, surely cannot be nullified by the law, which was given 430 years afterwards. The 430 years here relates to the period of time Israel spent in bondage to Egypt. This is revealed in [Exodus 12:40](Exodus%2012.md#^40). And the law, of course, was given shortly after Moses had led the people out of Egypt. > > Evidently, then, God must have reiterated His promise of salvation just before the children of Israel went into Egypt. Indeed, He did. In Genesis 45, Joseph had finally made himself known to his brothers and told them to bring their father Jacob, renamed Israel, to Egypt. We read in [verse 28 of Genesis 45](Genesis%2045.md#^28), "And Israel said, It is enough; Joseph my son is yet alive: I will go and see him before I die." Then, [Genesis 46:2](Genesis%2046.md#^2), [3](Genesis%2046.md#^3), [4](Genesis%2046.md#^4) records, > > *And God spoke unto Israel in the visions of the night, and said, Jacob, Jacob. And he said, Here am I. And he said, I am God, the God of thy father: fear not to go down into Egypt; for I will there make of thee a great nation: I will go down with thee into Egypt; and I will also surely bring thee up again. . . .* > > In fact, the Promise that He would go down with him into Egypt and bring him up again represents Christ as He spiritually (and physically) went into Egypt to redeem His people out of spiritual Egypt. > > This is the confirmation to which this Galatians verse refers. Before that, as we noted earlier, God had told Jacob in [Genesis 28:13](Genesis%2028.md#^13) - [14](Genesis%2028.md#^14): > > *And, behold, the Lord stood above it, and said, I am the Lord God of Abraham thy father, and the God of Isaac: the land whereon thou liest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed; And thy seed shall be as the dust of the earth, and thou shalt spread abroad to the west, and to the east, and to the north, and to the south: and in thee and in thy seed shall all the families of the earth be blessed.* > > **Unchangeable Promise** > > Hebrews 6 also emphasizes that the promise God gave Abraham cannot be changed. We read in [verses 17](Hebrews%206.md#^17) and [18](Hebrews%206.md#^18): > > *Wherein God, willing more abundantly to show unto the heirs of promise the immutability of his counsel, confirmed it by an oath: That by two immutable things, in which it was impossible for God to lie, we might have a strong consolation, who have fled for refuge to lay hold upon the hope set before us.* > > One might wonder why, then, was it necessary for God to repeat that promise to Isaac and Jacob? For one thing, God might be anticipating the argument here that a will, one "confirmed", cannot be nullified. More importantly, God made it clear through those repeated promises that the promised seed of Abraham, the Messiah who would bring salvation to all nations, would come through the line of Isaac and Jacob, not those of Ishmael or Esau. The latter are the progenitors of the Arab nations. ^gal3-17 > [Galatians 3:18](Galatians%203.md#^18) note > > To further set apart the law from the covenant of grace, God points out in this verse that if one should receive an inheritance as a result of our having kept the law, then it would indicate that the inheritance had nothing at all to do with a covenant or a will. It would no longer be of Promise. But God did promise to give the land, that is, the new heaven and new earth, to Abraham and his seed. And He made that promise without any strings attached. Inheriting that land, therefore, cannot possibly have anything to do with keeping the law. > > Remember, the promise in question has to do with the will in which God had named all those whom He had chosen to save. That will was made even before the foundation of the earth before anyone had done any good or bad works. And since Christ was in principle the Lamb slain from before the foundation of the earth, the instructions of the will must be carried out no matter what. ^gal3-18 > [Galatians 3:19](Galatians%203.md#^19) note > > Since God's promise of salvation by grace cannot be nullified by the law, it's only natural for one to ask, "Why, then, did God give us the law? What purpose does it serve?" The apostle explains here that the law was added because of transgressions. But in [1 John 3:4](1%20John%203.md#^4), God defines that sin is the transgression of the law. So, how could there be any transgression of the law before the law was even given? Answer: while the law was given in written form only beginning with Moses, it had been in existence right from the very beginning. > > Abel and Cain knew, for instance, that they had to offer sacrifices. And the first thing Noah did after the flood was to build an altar unto the Lord and offer burnt offerings thereon. Evidently, God had told them what they should or should not do and that their sins, their failures to follow all His commands, had to be atoned for. > > The law was given even to those who had no contact with God. [Romans 2:14](Romans%202.md#^14) - [15](Romans%202.md#^15) tells us: "For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: which show the work of the law written in their hearts. . . ." The Word of God was written in their hearts. That's why God was able to say that the people of Noah's day were desperately wicked. > > **Official Indictment** > > But to indict humanity officially for transgressing the law, it was necessary for God to add the written law. Once that's in place, it becomes clear that every human is a sinner, since no one can possibly keep the law perfectly. Besides showing humanity of their sinfulness, the law, notably the ceremonial law, also pointed to the atonement that the Messiah would bring. With the use of figures, it spelled out to the Old Testament believers the nature of the salvation that God had provided. Hence, David knew enough to write, for example, in [Psalm 51:1](Psalm%2051.md#^1), "Have mercy on me, O God, according to thy lovingkindness: according unto the multitude of thy tender mercies blot out my transgressions." > > This verse further declares that the law was added "till the seed should come to whom the promise was made". Here, God makes it clear that the primary beneficiary of the promise is Christ, the Seed. The law was added until He came with the new covenant. > > **Angels?** > > The second half of this verse – which reads, "and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator" – is difficult to understand as it stands. We find the same language in [Acts 7:53](Acts%207.md#^53). There, Stephen was accusing the Jews for having killed the prophets, and he described them as those "who have received the law by the disposition of angels, and have not kept it". Similarly, [Hebrews 2:2](Hebrews%202.md#^2) - [3](Hebrews%202.md#^3) reads, "For if the word spoken by angels was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompense of reward; how shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation. . . ." > > What did angels have to do with the giving of the law? > > **Messengers** > > Actually, the word "angels" in these passages is translated from the Greek aggelos, which can also be translated "messengers". Speaking of John the Baptist, for instance, Jesus says in [Matthew 11:10](Matthew%2011.md#^10), "For this is he, of whom it is written, Behold, I send my messenger (aggelos) before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee." > > If we substitute the word "messengers" in these verses for angels, they will make much better sense. Also, the hand is often used in the Bible as a figure to represent one's will. To come under the hand of someone is to submit to the will or rule of that person. And the word "ordained" is from the Greek word diatasso, which means administered. > > Thus, this part of Galatians 3:19 is saying that the law was administered to humanity through messengers by the will of a mediator. Who were the messengers? Moses and all the other prophets, not angelic beings. > > **Mediator** > > And who is the mediator? The Lord Jesus Christ. We read in [1 Timothy 2:5](1%20Timothy%202.md#^5) - [6](1%20Timothy%202.md#^6): > > *For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.* > > That the law was given according to the will of Christ is significant. It underscores the superior position of the grace of God over the law. God's original promise to offer salvation by grace is of top priority. The written Word must conform to the terms of the covenant. That's why it cannot in any way change or modify the Gospel. ^gal3-19 > [Galatians 3:20](Galatians%203.md#^20) note > > Now, there is no need for a mediator when only one person or party is involved; a mediator is someone who helps to reconcile two opposing persons or parties to each other. The Lord Jesus Christ is our mediator because He reconciles us to God. He answered to the demands of the law on our behalf by dying for our sins so that we can become right with God. Otherwise, we will all be condemned to eternal death. > > "But," in this case, "God is one." Whereas a mediator is normally just a third party that helps to bring two parties together, Christ Himself is intimately involved in the whole salvation plan. He wrote the covenant. He is the Testator of God's will. He is the one who dies to activate the Promise. And He is the prime beneficiary of that covenant, the principal Heir to receive the inheritance. He is all one. > > In short, the whole plan of salvation has come from the grace of God. He developed it, He executed it and He will finish it. No one else can claim one bit of credit. ^gal3-20 > [Galatians 3:21](Galatians%203.md#^21) note > > Is the law then against the promises of God? Is the law a competitor of the covenant? Is observing the law, as opposed to the Gospel, another way for one to attain salvation? As pointed out earlier, there are those who suggest that God has different dispensations for saving people in different periods of time. Under the dispensation that was in effect between the time the law was given and the start of the church age, keeping the law did indeed bring salvation to the Jews. (They also teach that after the church age is over, God will have yet another dispensation, under which Christ will reign on earth for a thousand years and everyone in national Israel will be saved.) > > But this verse says, "God forbid." That's not possible! Why? "For if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law." In other words, if God could have given a law which could bring eternal life to those who could keep it perfectly, then salvation would surely have come by the law. > > **Great Sacrifice** > > You see, what Christ went through to bring us salvation was most horrendous. He emptied Himself of His heavenly glory, came to earth as a suffering servant, and then endured the wrath of God, which is equivalent to eternal death for each person He saved. > > Remember that evening in the Garden of Gethsemane? [Luke 22:44](Luke%2022.md#^44) says, "And being in an agony he prayed more earnestly: and his sweat was as it were great drops of blood falling down to the ground." What was He praying for? "Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me; nevertheless, not my will, but thine be done" ([Lk 22:42](Luke%2022.md#^42)). > > While He reaffirmed that God's will be done, the horror of the damnation was so great that Christ pleaded if God might spare Him from that suffering. But there was no other way. And this is what the Bible is saying here. If anyone could have become saved by keeping the law, God would have used it as the means for people to attain righteousness. ^gal3-21 > [Galatians 3:22](Galatians%203.md#^22) note > > The reason there's no alternative is that the scripture hath concluded all under sin. The word "concluded" means to shut or close up together. And the scripture, of course, is the law of God. In other words, the law has shut all of us up together under sin. > > Incidentally, the law of God is not restricted to the Mosaic law that was given to the nation of Israel. The whole Bible is the law of God and it is given to all of humanity. Hence, we are all lawbreakers; we are all locked up together in sin. That is why Christ had to suffer God's wrath so "that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe". > > Is God saying here that we must first believe and then the promise is given to us? No. Remember, to believe means to have faith. And where did that belief come from? From the faith of Jesus Christ. ^gal3-22 > [Galatians 3:23](Galatians%203.md#^23) - [24](Galatians%203.md#^24) note > > God now begins to tell us in more specific terms the many functions of the law. You know, some people think that because we are saved by grace, our salvation has no relationship to the law, the Word of God. They are quite mistaken. We read in [Romans 10:17](Romans%2010.md#^17), "So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God." God works through His written Word to save us; He applies the Gospel to our heart. > > Back in [verse 19](Galatians%203.md#^19), it was revealed that the law was added until Christ came. This verse amplifies that truth. Before the Lord Jesus came, God introduced the law to keep every person under its demands. Here, the law is spoken of as our schoolmaster. A schoolmaster rules over his students. He has the authority to punish or discipline them when they disobey him. But a schoolmaster also teaches his students truths, helping them to gain wisdom and guiding them onto the right path. > > **Progression** > > So it is with the law of God. Before faith came, we were kept under its authority. As our schoolmaster, it demands that we are punished with eternal damnation for our sins. But it also teaches us that we can escape that punishment by coming to the Lord Jesus Christ. It brings us unto Christ; it takes us to the point of believing in Christ. The phrases "shut up unto the faith" and "bring us unto Christ" in this passage indicate that there is a progression in our salvation process. > > The Bible starts out by showing us that we are sinners who are subject to eternal damnation and who are in need of a Savior. It then tells us that Christ is the Savior of all those who believe in Him. Then, in His perfect timing, God opens our spiritual ears, applies the Gospel to our heart, and gives us the faith to believe in Christ. ^gal3-23-24 > [Galatians 3:25](Galatians%203.md#^25) note > > But after we have received the faith of Christ to believe in Him, we are no longer under the authority of this schoolmaster. We find this truth echoed in [Romans 6:14](Romans%206.md#^14), "For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace"; and in [Romans 7:6](Romans%207.md#^6), "But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter." > > In other words, once the law has brought us to the Lord Jesus Christ, the penalty of sin no longer threatens us; the law no longer stands as a sword over our heads ready to bring us to eternal damnation. We have emerged from the control of the schoolmaster; we have graduated, so to speak. ^gal3-25 > [Galatians 3:26](Galatians%203.md#^26) note > > Once God has given us the faith to believe in the Lord Jesus Christ, we become children of God. Again, our adoption by God has nothing to do with what we have done. Rather, it was God's good pleasure to stipulate in His will that we would be adopted. Thus, we read in [Ephesians 1:5](Ephesians%201.md#^5), "Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will." But how do we know that we have become a child of God? [Romans 8:15](Romans%208.md#^15) - [16](Romans%208.md#^16) answers: > > *For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father. The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God.* > > We know by the fact that we have received the indwelling Holy Spirit and somehow, He testifies to our spirit through His Word that we have been adopted by God. And by the Holy Spirit, we cry to God, "Abba, Father" – “Abba” being the intimate Aramaic word for Father. ^gal3-26 > [Galatians 3:27](Galatians%203.md#^27) note > > Once we are saved, we become the sons of God also because we have been baptized into Christ, which in turn qualifies us to put on Christ. Now, what does "baptized into Christ" and "put on Christ" mean? > > First, let's find out from the Bible itself the meaning of the verb "to baptize", because many wrong doctrines and practices have resulted from the misunderstanding and misinterpretation of it. Most people are taught, for instance, that to baptize means to immerse in water. But that is not the meaning God has in view when He uses that word. > > In most cases in the Bible, the word "baptized" is simply translated from the Greek word *baptizo*; and its noun "baptism", from the Greek word *baptismos*. Unfortunately, these transliterations do not help us at all in understanding the meanings of the words. But there are a few instances where the contexts do not allow a direct transliteration into either baptize or baptism. And comparing scripture with scripture, we can just let those verses define the meaning for us. > > **God's Own Definition** > > The same Greek verb and noun, for example, are found in [Mark 7:4](Mark%207.md#^4): > > *And when they come from the market, except they wash (baptizo), they eat not. And many other things there be, which they have received to hold, as the washing (baptismos) of cups, and pots, brasen vessels, and of tables.* > > Obviously, they weren't immersing tables in water just before they ate; they washed them. Similarly, we read in [verse 8](Mark%207.md#^8), where Jesus accuses the Pharisees in the same context: "For laying aside the commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men, as the washing (baptismos) of pots and cups: and many other such like things ye do." > > We also read in [Luke 11:38](Luke%2011.md#^38), "And when the Pharisee saw it, he marveled that he had not first washed (baptizo) before dinner." While pots, cups, hands and feet can be easily immersed, the intent is the same as it is with washing the tables -- to baptize simply means *to wash*. > > Still another place where God uses the word baptismos is in [Hebrews 9:10](Hebrews%209.md#^10). We read there, "Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of the reformation." The "divers washings" here refers to the water ablutions of hands and feet and various temple objects. > > So, to be "baptized into Christ" means to be washed into Christ. We are washed by the blood of Christ, as a result of which we become joined into Christ. Actually, the Bible repeatedly associates washing with salvation. [Titus 3:5](Titus%203.md#^5), for instance, speaks of "the washing of regeneration". And we read in [Ephesians 5:26](Ephesians%205.md#^26) that Jesus gave Himself for the church "that he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word." > > **Putting On Christ** > > Next, what does the phrase "put on Christ" mean? It means to put on the robe of Christ's righteousness. You see, before we are saved, we are spiritually naked before the Lord; all our sins are exposed to His all-seeing eyes. That's why Adam and Eve were ashamed of their naked bodies after they had eaten the forbidden fruit. In [Ezekiel 23:28](Ezekiel%2023.md#^28) - [29](Ezekiel%2023.md#^29), God also relates Judah's apostasy to nakedness: > > *For thus saith the Lord GOD; Behold, I will deliver thee into the hand of them whom thou hatest, into the hand of them from whom thy mind is alienated: And they shall deal with thee hatefully, and shall take away all thy labor, and shall leave thee naked and bare: and the nakedness of thy whoredoms shall be discovered, both thy lewdness and thy whoredoms.* > > But when one is saved, his sins are covered by the blood of Christ, clothed and covered by the garments of salvation and His robe of righteousness. [Isaiah 61:10](Isaiah%2061.md#^10) says: > > *I will greatly rejoice in the Lord, my soul shall be joyful in my God; for he has clothed me with the garments of salvation, he has covered me with the robe of righteousness, as a bridegroom decks himself with ornaments, and as a bride adorns herself with jewels.* ^gal3-27 > [Galatians 3:28](Galatians%203.md#^28) note > > In this world, there is prejudice everywhere. People are being discriminated because of their race, sex, social standing and whatever. But God is no respector of persons. In Christ, all believers stand on the same ground; we are all condemned sinners saved entirely by the grace of God. > > This beautiful truth, however, has often been distorted. There are those who claim that because there is neither male nor female in Christ, women, as well as men, can be preachers, elders and deacons of a church, and they can teach men in a Sunday school. Such an interpretation of this verse is contrary to the Word of God. > > Elsewhere in the Bible, God has carefully set up lines of authority for the church, the family and society. These lines have never been rescinded. Thus, even after they have become saved, women are still forbidden to teach or have authority over men in the church; children must still obey and honor their parents, wives should still submit to their husbands, and servants must still obey their masters. (This does not give those in authority the excuse to abuse those under them or to treat them with disrespect). The equality spoken of in this verse refers to the eligibility of salvation. God is promising that all those who believe in Christ – rich or poor, young or old, black or white – will not perish, but have everlasting life. ^gal3-28 > [Galatians 3:29](Galatians%203.md#^29) note > > If we are truly in Christ, we are the seed of Abraham and we are the heirs named in God's will to receive the inheritance. That's because Christ is the primary beneficiary. [Romans 8:17](Romans%208.md#^17) elaborates on this point, "And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ." > > This inheritance comes to us in two steps. As we've learned from verse 26, we become sons of God as soon as we are saved. We can never lose that inheritance. But much as we try to live a life that is pleasing to our Father, we fail again and again because we still have a sin-cursed body. Hence, there is a second step in our inheritance as joint-heirs. [Romans 8:23](Romans%208.md#^23), > > *And not only they, but ourselves also, which have the firstfruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body.* > > The absolute completion of our salvation will occur when Christ comes again. When He does, we will receive our resurrected bodies and inherit the new heaven and the new earth forevermore. That is why we eagerly long for His return. ^gal3-29 Tags: #New_Testament #Galatians #True_Gospel #FSI